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Odds and Probability.
I had a bit of a debate with a mate of mine over something very stupid and just wish to get some other opinions on the matter.
It’s about the casino game roulette. (We watched a casino film) He said that the same number in a game of roulette appeared one after the other on quite a frequent basis, I agreed and said it would occur around once an hour on the basis of there being 40 numbers on a roulette wheel, and around 40 spins an hour. My logic is that (with the exception of the very first spin) each roulette spin will have a 1 in 40 chance of hitting the previous number. He disagreed. Anybody know much about the topic? I’m quite confident that I’m right, just wanted to get some other opinions on it.
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Not even HelpBot responded. How rejected do I fell?? :P
well its completly random what number gets hit, there is no possible way of predicting it of system for finding out a pattern that lets you choose the winning numbers…
but yea if there are 40 numbers on the wheel then there will be a 1 in 40 chance of any set number appearing…
haha, don’t feel rejected. you’ve just stumped people!
you were right, the probability of it landing on a certain number should have nothing to do with howmany times its been hit already. like the three door riddle, only with fourty doors.
I’m not talking about predicting a number, I’m talking about probability and chance which is predictable. For example, tossing a coin is 50/50 of hitting a heads or tails.
And I’m not talking about a number appearing, I’m talking about a number appearing twice in a row. And my point is that, trying to PREDICT a number which will appear twice in a row is extremely difficult, the odds of ANY number hitting twice in a row is basically 1 in 40 on account of the previous number has already been decided before each individual roll.
What’s the three door riddle noel?
it was from some old game show called “lets make a deal”. the host would show you three doors, one had a prize behind it and the other two had goats. you would pick a door, then the host would show you whats behind one of the doors and he’d give you a chance to switch your door after you knew where one of the goats was. people tend to think that they begin with a 1 in 3 chance and, after being shown one of the doors, end up with a 1 in 2 chance. in actuality, you have a 1 in 3 chance the entire time, and its the same no matter how many doors you add to the equation, its always 1 in n, n being the number of doors of course. your problem just made me think of that.
& its still 1 in 40 for it appearing twice in a row. i think…
Ah yes I know it now, tis a fun riddle to confuse people with :)
So far it’s me-1, my friend-0! Woo-hoo!
well to get for example the number 10 in one spin would have a chance of 1/40. Having a second go it would also be 1/40 but when attemting to get two tens in two spins the chance of getting two 10’s would be 1/1600, when you understand what i mean its really easy, it just depends on the amount of times you want the same number to appear with the number of spins…
I think your agreeing with exactly what I’m saying oB1canoB. So on average ANY number would appear twice in a row in any given hour. (on the basis of 40 number on a wheel, and 40 spins per hour)
well it all depends…
if you were only having one spin and you wanted one certain number to appear then there would be a 1/40 chance of it appearing…
if you then had a second go and chose a second number then there would still be a 1/40 chance…
but if you chose two numbers and then took two spins there would be a 1/1600 chance of those two numbers appearing in the order that you chose…
I’m not saying any particular number, as in betting on any number. I’m just saying that over the course of 40 spins chances are you will have the same number appear twice in the row once.
Obviously, I don’t mean it’s guaranteed to happen, just like it can happen more than once, but just that on average it will happen once every 40 spins.
ohhhhh, yes i see what your getting at!! lol
yes your right, the mathmatics of the whole thing state that at least one number will repeat itself at 41 spins…
yea that absolutly correct, i wasnt following what you were getting at, soz ;)
I probably wasn’t explaining myself very well! Woo hoo it’s me-2, my friend-0! :D
yea cus it would be impossible for a new number to show at 41 spins as there is only 40 numbers available… :)
Also back to noel, after help.4u replied I read the whole response! And you are wrong, the odds do increase if you switch doors in that situation, provided that the door revealed to you was not the prize. You start off with a one in three chance, and if the door that is shown to you is not the prize and you switch doors, you have a 2/3 chance of getting the prize.
to be honest this game you are all talking about sounds a bit rubbish if u ask me…
Did you watch the video? It explains it quite well, better than I can explain it. It is completely logical and truthful though if you work out all the possible outcomes.
hmm, well ok, it kind of makes sense but it doesnt really have anything to do with this 1/40 thing does it cus each spin has all number available…
yea like the lottery, people think that getting 1 2 3 4 5 and 6 is unlikely when infact it is just as likely as any other set…
So are you basically asking what are the odds (or probability to be more formal) on getting the same number twice on a roullette that has 40 numbers?
That’s relatively easy to figure out.
Let’s say the number was X. The odds of getting number X the first time is 1/40. The second time, the odds would be 1/80. Then the third time would be 1/240.
Think in terms of heads and tails.
The odds of getting heads the first time is 1/2. The odds of getting heads a second time is 1/4. The odds of getting it a third time is 1/8.
If you just look at it in terms of numbers, yes it’s only 1/2 every time. But math has weird rules that’s beyond my explanation.
If this isn’t what you were asking, then can you be a little more clear?
An Unknown Location | 2 months, 4 weeks ago (10 hours, 23 minutes after post)
no, one of u is wrong. when taking into account multiple flips of a coin you multiply the denominater to get the further probabilities.
so like i said earlier, one spin of the wheel gives a 1/40 chance of one set number appearing, but for two set numbers to appear over the course of two spins would have a chance of 1/1600 because there are 1600 possible compinations (unless the first number is removed from the second selection), example with a dice, for two set numbers to appear after two throws (the first throw is 1/6) isnt 1/12 its 1/36 because there are 36 possible combinations number…
Ugh, people are getting drawn off the point. I’m not trying to work out a gambling system for roulette or anything. I work in a bookies, I see just how much “the house” always wins, I don’t gamble except for fun where I don’t care if I lose.
Mikozee, I’m sorry but yes, your math is indeed flawed. Your right about the coin tosses though, to get heads twice in a row would be a 1/4 chance. My question would be related more to the chances of getting either a heads OR a tails twice in a row though, which would be 1/2.
oB1canoB, I think you are getting what I am saying.
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