I´ve in my hands the title for my house, my wife lured
me without I knowing to sign a bill of sale for the house, now I´m divorcing and she sold the house to a relative(grandmother), a Lawyer had told me that a person cannot sell a property without a real conscent from the other party(cheated me into signing without my knowledge), and that the time of signing with the time of writting of the sale could be proved, is it true_, what should I do?RT
This open post was written 10 months, 2 weeks ago | V/U/S: 61, 4, 3 | Edit Post | Leave a reply | Report Post
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